Can anyone explain the value of measuring/analyzing total testosterone when it appears that total testosterone appears to be a function of the amount of SHBG present rather than HPTA output? I have read on another forum where Bill Roberts explains the rationale behind this more clearly. Here's the link: T-Nation.com | When is Bioavailable T Too Low? - Page 1 So when you have a person in a situation like mine where Total testosterone is decent (476) and free T is out of range low, does this indicate hypogonadism? Some would say that the problem is high SHBG. But based on the above thinking, it looks like SHBG is relatively static and isn't the real problem. Granted I don't have a SHBG lab (yet), but it is most likely high. Also, do feedback loops work on SHBG bound hormones or free? Thanks in advance for your input.