unforgivingconsumer
New Member
So my question is relatively simple, but I'm unable to find an answer.
Why is hCG recommended over hMG, or even an hMG/hCG combination for PCT? While hCG is an LH mimetic, hMG is an FSH preparation that appears to be a perfect addition to hCG in PCT.
Furthermore, what if I could start from the top down, so to speak, and inject a GnRH-A in a similar fashion to how we use hCG now (immediately prior to SERMs)? I realize that getting your hands on a GnRH agonist would be relatively hard for most, this is just a purely hypothetical extension to my question.
Not factoring in cost (because after all, what's a half a grand when it comes to restoring my HPTA?), would an endocrinologist consider these therapies overkill for someone that responds to hCG and SERMs to prevent negative feedback induction, alone? If so, why? Wouldn't it be more beneficial to reboot the HPTA as quickly as possible?
Why is hCG recommended over hMG, or even an hMG/hCG combination for PCT? While hCG is an LH mimetic, hMG is an FSH preparation that appears to be a perfect addition to hCG in PCT.
Furthermore, what if I could start from the top down, so to speak, and inject a GnRH-A in a similar fashion to how we use hCG now (immediately prior to SERMs)? I realize that getting your hands on a GnRH agonist would be relatively hard for most, this is just a purely hypothetical extension to my question.
Not factoring in cost (because after all, what's a half a grand when it comes to restoring my HPTA?), would an endocrinologist consider these therapies overkill for someone that responds to hCG and SERMs to prevent negative feedback induction, alone? If so, why? Wouldn't it be more beneficial to reboot the HPTA as quickly as possible?