TREST/MENT without a test base?

No, based on my logic (and in accordance with clinical & practical use, including experience of bodybuilders) besides testosterone, fluoxymesterone (Halo), methandienone (Dianabol; 10 mg daily provides ~replacement T sexual functioning), and hell, even nandrolone (Deca/NPP is 5α-reduced to DHN, a weakened androgen, but that can still provide 5α-reductase function at appropriate doses), all function as 5α-reducible (or 5α/5β-reducible) androgens approprate to support sexual function. Halo in particular is used specifically for this therapeutically, it is used not only for hypogonadism but also in delayed or disrupted puberty.

I have yet to see an unbiased source report MENT adequately supported sexual function (anyone besides /r/steroids mods & you, actually) with solo use at anabolic (e.g., bodybuilding) doses. I have seen ample evidence of the opposite.

i don't see proviron on that list which is a common steroid for treating low t.

so you think that just because MENT does not 5AR it can't support sexual functioning? That is interesting because dianabol has extremely low affinity for 5AR and methyl-1-testosterone is produced in only trace amounts.

and since MENT does not 5AR are you saying it is not binding to the AR is genital tissue where 5AR is highly present? does trestolone not want to bind in AR in certain tissue?

im not here to shill ment like the guys at r/steroids i am just really interested with this compound and the pharmacology.
 
i don't see proviron on that list which is a common steroid for treating low t.

so you think that just because MENT does not 5AR it can't support sexual functioning? That is interesting because dianabol has extremely low affinity for 5AR and methyl-1-testosterone is produced in only trace amounts.

and since MENT does not 5AR are you saying it is not binding to the AR is genital tissue where 5AR is highly present? does trestolone not want to bind in AR in certain tissue?

im not here to shill ment like the guys at r/steroids i am just really interested with this compound and the pharmacology.
Proviron is interesting. It's already 5α-reduced so it does not serve 5α-reductase function. Rather, it seems to enhance sexual function in addition to T and its 5α-reduction to DHT by a couple interesting mechanisms, including neural (it's psychostimulatory, on par with dextroamphetamine & tricyclic depressants; dopaminergic and serotonergic). It can block the Δ⁵ pathway of T synthesis ↑DHEA supply from [adrenal] DHEA pool for T synthesis. It yields 5α-androstanediol via 3α-HSD, which acts as a GABA modulatory neurosteroid, and likely contributes to enhanced feelings of well-being and sexual potency. And its well known effect, of course, of tightly binding SHBG theoretically augments free T (it does more often than not in practice). All of these mechanisms are dependent however on basal testosterone levels (sort of like MENT, I would argue).

I think that MENT and AR activity in male sex tissues probably follows a sort U-shaped dose response, where ~0.5 mg/d (too low to suppress endogenous T) permits DHT (via T) to activate AR in these tissues (and MENT seems to have an at least additive effect). At moderate doses, basal T secretion is suppressed, MENT concentrations are too low in these tissues, so hypogonadal symptoms prevail. Then, at very high doses, MENT does activate these receptors -- but, because of the suppressive effects of 17α-methylestradiol at the pituitary (suppressing LH secretion), at the hypothalamus (slowing the rate of GnRH pulse frequency), MENT's progestin backbone acting on the hypothalamus to dysregulate T & gonadotropin secretion via altered KNDy dendron signalling/pulsatility, and 17α-methylestradiol's tendency to increase serum prolactin contributing further to hypogonadism (primarily at the hypothalamus), you are left with - despite AR activation in these sex tissues - a prevailing influence that is estrogenic & progestagenic (inducing hypogonadism).

This I believe fairly well characterizes the average response (no AI, SERM, just MENT solo). There may be individuals that are resilient to suppression and tend to see a permissive effect on androgenic and sexual function despite these suppressive mechanisms. Interestingly, the difference between men that experience azoospermia (sperm count = 0, infertility) & mere oligozoospermia (sperm count < 3 x 10⁶/mL) on supraphysiological testosterone is that the latter see a selective increase in 5α-reductase activity (the likeliest explanation for maintained sexual function despite suppression of gonadotropins). There is a sort of as yet undefined "androgenic milieu" that differs between individuals. Thus, different androgen profiles likely result in different experiences for some individuals.
 
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Proviron is interesting. It's already 5α-reduced so it does not serve 5α-reductase function. Rather, it seems to enhance sexual function in addition to T and its 5α-reduction to DHT by a couple interesting mechanisms, including neural (it's psychostimulatory, on par with dextroamphetamine & tricyclic depressants; dopaminergic and serotonergic). It can block the Δ⁵ pathway of T synthesis ↑DHEA supply from [adrenal] DHEA pool for T synthesis. It yields 5α-androstanediol via 3α-HSD, which acts as a GABA modulatory neurosteroid, and likely contributes to enhanced feelings of well-being and sexual potency. And its well known effect, of course, of tightly binding SHBG theoretically augments free T (it does more often than not in practice). All of these mechanisms are dependent however on basal testosterone levels (sort of like MENT, I would argue).

I think that MENT and AR activity in male sex tissues probably follows a sort U-shaped dose response, where ~0.5 mg/d (too low to suppress endogenous T) permits DHT (via T) to activate AR in these tissues (and MENT seems to have an at least additive effect). At moderate doses, basal T secretion is suppressed, MENT concentrations are too low in these tissues, so hypogonadal symptoms prevail. Then, at very high doses, MENT does activate these receptors -- but, because of the suppressive effects of 17α-methylestradiol at the pituitary (suppressing LH secretion), at the hypothalamus (slowing the rate of GnRH pulse frequency), MENT's progestin backbone acting on the hypothalamus to dysregulate T & gonadotropin secretion via altered KNDy dendron signalling/pulsatility, and 17α-methylestradiol's tendency to increase serum prolactin contributing further to hypogonadism (primarily at the hypothalamus), you are left with - despite AR activation in these sex tissues - a prevailing influence that is estrogenic & progestagenic (inducing hypogonadism).

This I believe fairly well characterizes the average response (no AI, SERM, just MENT solo). There may be individuals that are resilient to suppression and tend to see a permissive effect on androgenic and sexual function despite these suppressive mechanisms. Interestingly, the difference between men that experience azoospermia (sperm count = 0, infertility) & mere oligozoospermia (sperm count < 3 x 10⁶/mL) on supraphysiological testosterone is that the latter see a selective increase in 5α-reductase activity (the likeliest explanation for maintained sexual function despite suppression of gonadotropins). There is a sort of as yet undefined "androgenic milieu" that differs between individuals. Thus, different androgen profiles likely result in different experiences for some individuals.

The science and data disagrees with all your theories. Keep ignoring the data. MENT not being able to 5AR has ZERO effect on the drugs ability to maintain sexual function. "An inadequate testosterone level causes undesirable effects such as fatigue, loss of skeletal muscle mass, reduced libido, and weight gain. However, the androgenic and anabolic properties of trestolone largely ameliorate this problem  essentially, trestolone replaces testosterone's role as the primary male hormone in the body."
 
The science and data disagrees with all your theories. Keep ignoring the data. MENT not being able to 5AR has ZERO effect on the drugs ability to maintain sexual function. "An inadequate testosterone level causes undesirable effects such as fatigue, loss of skeletal muscle mass, reduced libido, and weight gain. However, the androgenic and anabolic properties of trestolone largely ameliorate this problem  essentially, trestolone replaces testosterone's role as the primary male hormone in the body."
Citation?
 
I've provided plenty of citations , no?
You've done an atrocious job providing citations, you've done a great job of copying and pasting blurbs without the citations and even refusing to provide them, when asked by me, 2/2 (100%) of the time.
 
The science and data disagrees with all your theories. Keep ignoring the data. MENT not being able to 5AR has ZERO effect on the drugs ability to maintain sexual function. "An inadequate testosterone level causes undesirable effects such as fatigue, loss of skeletal muscle mass, reduced libido, and weight gain. However, the androgenic and anabolic properties of trestolone largely ameliorate this problem  essentially, trestolone replaces testosterone's role as the primary male hormone in the body."
I read the two papers to which this copy and pasted passage from the Wikipedia entry for Trestolone refer:

[1] Nieschlag, E., Kumar, N., & Sitruk-Ware, R. (2013). 7α-Methyl-19-nortestosterone (MENTR): the Population Council’s contribution to research on male contraception and treatment of hypogonadism. Contraception, 87(3), 288–295. doi:10.1016/j.contraception.2012.08.036

[2] Sundaram, K., Kumar, N., & Bardin, C. W. (1993). 7α-Methyl-Nortestosterone (MENT): The Optimal Androgen for Male Contraception. Annals of Medicine, 25(2), 199–205. doi:10.3109/07853899309164168

And I must say that these offered nothing new of note, and were an waste of time having read them.

From [1], the only study where a dose > that used by your prior reference (actually, provided by @Cridi887) to Anderson, R. A., Martin, C. W., et al. used 3X 171 mg MENT Ace implants. The results were abysmal, and attributed to implant failure (but do not support enhanced sexual function at bodybuilding doses). The aforementioned purportedly adequate dose, here, failed to support androgenicity and suppress spermatogenesis. Indeed, Walton, et al. as cited herein (and mentioned previously) showed that "2 of 13 (15%) MENT subjects withdrew after 8 weeks of treatment due to low libido & erectile dysfunction...Adverse events included reduced libido & erectile function in 4 additional subjects in the MENT group who completed treatment (6/13, or 46%) [these adverse effects were not reported by any subject in the testosterone group]...Due to the incidence of reports of low libido and early withdrawal in the MENT group, it was decided in consultation with the study Data Monitoring and Safety Committe to shorten the MENT treatment period to 24 weeks whereas men in the testosterone group completed 48 weeks of treatment."

I think it's fair to characterize Anderson, et al. as an outlier; not to mind the fact that no study has looked at up to 600 mg/wk testosterone enanthate equivalent dose/response so as to dismiss the observation (not yet subjected to rigorous study) that bodybuilding doses of solo MENT do not apparently support sexual function.

The study by Sundaram, et al. [2], discusses the - and I accept this as the majority - view that 5α-reduction/amplification per se is unnecessary to support sexual function, but rather merely contributed to BPH/prostate growth in adults (it supports sexual dimorphism during gestation/maturation). I already know that this is the majority view, and it has until fairly recently been shared by myself.

The experiences of MENT users is actually one bit of evidence that made me rethink it. So too is the general lackluster experience in men (I believe women are far more sensitive to androgenic effects in enhancing sexual potency, libido, etc.) of any nontestosterone base, and noteworthy enhancement by Halo.

I believe that, just as the process of aromatization has been shown to be more complex than commonly understood; the same is true for 5α-reduction. I will present evidence that the process per se (in situ aromatization) exerts distinct effects, e.g., on circulating IGF-I; and that this belies a rudimentary view, still clung to, that AAS drug design benefits from reducing the purportedly deleterious effects of T mediated by aromatization to E2 & 5α-reduction to DHT.

To illustrate the complexity of aromatization and its value as a discrete (here, myogenic & mitogenic) process

E2 (the aromatic product of T) reduces IGF-I. This is clear from exogenous estrogen administration (e.g., ethinyl estradiol reduces IGF-I to the tune of 30%).

Women that are not on exogenous estrogens have higher IGF-I values than their age-matched male counterparts (until menopausal age, E2 decline).

The reason that both of these can be true, is that E2 unleashes GH secretion (feedback withdrawal) by increasing IGFBP-1 (reducing IGF-I bioavailability). As a result, women have much higher GH concentrations than age-matched men, and just slightly higher IGF-I concentrations.

Women are far less responsive to rhGH, and require higher doses than men of similar size (but experience worse side effects). For women that are on exogenous estrogens, this is even more pronounced. For example, a daily dose of 0.6 IU was sufficient as replacement in men whereas 1.2 IU (or 1.8 IU) was required in the women. Clinical guidelines for rhGH replacement provide that rhGH dose be reduced by 50% if a woman is switched from oral estrogen to transdermal estrogen and then to reduced by one third if the woman discontinues transdermal estrogen.

In men, E2 is the product of T =(Aromatase)=> E2; all of it.

T (and aromatizing androgen generally) augment E2, and yet, clearly increase IGF-I values potently.

This is because it is the process of in situ aromatization per se that enhances IGF-I levels in men. Tamoxifen reduces IGF-I. So does exogenous estrogen.

Exogenous T:
- significantly and consistently increases plasma total IGF-I concentrations
- elevates underlying basal (non-pulsatile) GH release
- does not increase IGFBP-1 concentrations (therefore, unlike exogenous estradiol, there is no compensatory mechanism to mitigate IGF-I increases despite heightened GHRH and GHRP actions).

It is my hypothesis (a construct at this point) that aromatization (process) augments IGF-I independently and asynchronously from its substrate (T) & product (E2).

There are discrete signaling pathways leading to high local IGF-I concentration.

This data, then, contravenes the (in my view) outmoded view of aromatase as a deleterious function of T, to be abolished by drug design of nonaromatizable androgen.

5α-reduction as a discrete process
To distinguish from the understanding of aromatization as a discrete (mitogenic & myogenic) process, admittedly my data on the nature of 5α-reduction as an indispensible (sexual function) process is not as robust. Importantly, *I* am entirely willing to alter my hypothesis (not yet a more fleshed out construct) on this if I see data that dismisses these arguments & supporting logic:

Dutasteride is an inhibitor of both 5α-reductase type 1 & 2. Type 1, notably, is expressed in brain (and liver, kidney, skin). Dutasteride is associated with sexual dysfunction.

Finasteride is supposedly a selective inhibitor of 5 type 1, yet the post-finasteride syndrome is associated with persistent symptoms of sexual impotency and dysfunction; lower cerebrospinal fluid levels of allopregnanolone, isopregnanolone, and DHT, and higher levels of testosterone and estradiol have been observed in subjects that suffer from the post-finasteride syndrome.

5α-reductase, then, appears to be an important discrete pathway involved in sexual function, aside from merely modulating growth of prostate tissue.

This is the basis for my belief that 5α-reductase per se confers sexual potency benefits beyond merely amplification of T to DHT.

I believe that there is a teleological basis for the importance of these pathways - T, as the primary male androgen, is a good substrate for both enzymes (aromatase & 5α-reductase) and eons of evolutionary pressures have reinforced various characteristically male traits (e.g., increased physicality & body size; increased sexual potency) via these processes.
 
Dutasteride is associated with sexual dysfunction.
No. I have been using 5-a inhibitors for many years, it is on dutasteride that endogenous T increases (this does not happen with finasteride) T and dht become interchangeable with a sufficiently high T. Pfs occurs exclusively in neurotics, that is, in people with initially low androgenic status.
 
that AAS drug design benefits from reducing the purportedly deleterious effects of T
It seems to me that this is still true. Without exogenous E2, the testicles do not fall asleep for many weeks, and after non-aromatizing aas, pct is not needed, the production of T begins almost immediately, antiandrogens such as dutasteride can be used to raise T even more.
 
No. I have been using 5-a inhibitors for many years, it is on dutasteride that endogenous T increases (this does not happen with finasteride)
True, but I never stated otherwise. Sexual function does not necessarily follow from increased TT/fT in the presence of 5α-R inhibition; and, with some frequency, quite opposite.

If you're using dutasteride on TRT, this is entirely irrelevant.
T and dht become interchangeable with a sufficiently high T.
In the case of T & DHT I don't disagree. In the case of total 5α-reductase blockade (given that I have laid evidence out for a discrete function of 5α-reduction per se), I do.

In any case, provide evidence.

This is a mere tautology.
Pfs occurs exclusively in neurotics, that is, in people with initially low androgenic status.
Neurotics = people with initially low "androgenic status." Yeah, whatever.

There's no known predictive value of any test to determine whether a patient is likely to experience post-finasteride syndrome.
 
It seems to me that this is still true. Without exogenous E2, the testicles do not fall asleep for many weeks, and after non-aromatizing aas, pct is not needed, the production of T begins almost immediately, antiandrogens such as dutasteride can be used to raise T even more.
Did you actually read the entirety of #70?

If so, please refer to what aspects you disagree with.

In any case, androgen itself (though less potently than E2) slows the rate of hypothalamic GnRH pulse frequency, and dose-dependently contributes to suppression of endogenous T synthesis & secretion.

Practically, I agree that 50 mg oxymetholone or oxandrolone, oral turinabol, etc. are virtually nonsuppressive.

I don't see how this is in disagreement with anything I wrote?
 
It seems to me that this is still true. Without exogenous E2, the testicles do not fall asleep for many weeks, and after non-aromatizing aas, pct is not needed, the production of T begins almost immediately, antiandrogens such as dutasteride can be used to raise T even more.
And to be clear, I think that you may just be quibbling over semantics.

I believe that drug design benefits, for certain applications, by the production of nonaromatizable androgen. But it is not a clear dichotomy, where nonaromatizable > aromatizable AAS, for all use cases.

If you absolutely view T as an inferior AAS because it's aromatizable, that is definitely a view I do not share (and believe is outmoded).
 
And to be clear, I think that you may just be quibbling over semantics.

I believe that drug design benefits, for certain applications, by the production of nonaromatizable androgen. But it is not a clear dichotomy, where nonaromatizable > aromatizable AAS, for all use cases.

If you absolutely view T as an inferior AAS because it's aromatizable, that is definitely a view I do not share (and believe is outmoded).
I agree with you in everything. I just wrote a little of my opinion. I've been on T for a few years, yes, it's fun for the first few years, but then my health deteriorates. Now I haven't used T for three years, and I like it that way more.
 
I agree with you in everything. I just wrote a little of my opinion. I've been on T for a few years, yes, it's fun for the first few years, but then my health deteriorates. Now I haven't used T for three years, and I like it that way more.
I know, it would seem we basically agree (far more often than not). I recall you saying that you avoid aromatizing androgen because of proneness to BPH/prostate growth. Entirely legitimate. If you are concerned as well about HPG axis functioning, again - entirely legitimate. Just do try to avoid bias, anchoring the general utility of aromatizing androgen to your own trial of 1 (n=1; revono)/your own use case, at the exclusion of others.
 
I know, it would seem we basically agree (far more often than not). I recall you saying that you avoid aromatizing androgen because of proneness to BPH/prostate growth. Entirely legitimate. If you are concerned as well about HPG axis functioning, again - entirely legitimate. Just do try to avoid bias, anchoring the general utility of aromatizing androgen to your own trial of 1 (n=1; revono)/your own use case, at the exclusion of others.
Of course, I understand that everyone's body is individual. By the way, I'm not sure that E2 is harmful to the prostate, when I was on T there were no problems at all. The medical community always talks about prostate enlargement even on trt, according to their logic, bodybuilders should have prostate with melon, in fact, the opposite is true. Studying prostate problems, I immediately noticed that more often problems begin with endogenous androgens. Apparently, intra-testicular androgens play a major role, they are greatly reduced on T, as is known..
 
Of course, I understand that everyone's body is individual. By the way, I'm not sure that E2 is harmful to the prostate, when I was on T there were no problems at all. The medical community always talks about prostate enlargement even on trt, according to their logic, bodybuilders should have prostate with melon, in fact, the opposite is true. Studying prostate problems, I immediately noticed that more often problems begin with endogenous androgens. Apparently, intra-testicular androgens play a major role, they are greatly reduced on T, as is known..
Delve into the topic, you might be surprised that estradiol is associated (+) with prostate volume and not androgen (in men).


PubMed: estradiol prostate volume
 
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