mousetrapped
New Member
Ok this is a question I've always wondered, why do people use nolva as their primary PCT drug? I understand using nolva on cycle and also during your PCT to avoid gyno, but, from what I understand nolvadex is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that acts on the breast tissue, it is selective for the receptors on that tissue specifically. Is this an over simplification?
The idea of PCT is to get the gonads producing endogenous testosterone again, and a drug like clomid or AIs or HCG all seem to make sense because clomid acts on the receptors in the brain, giving the brain the impression there is no/low estrogen in the body and therefore low/no testosterone which stimulates the signalling hormones leading to production of testosterone. AI's more or less the same except the receptors aren't being blocked, the enzyme that converts testosterone to estrogen is destroyed, resulting in the brain not seeing estrogen so again, signals testosterone production. But with Nolva, shouldn't the brain see the same amount of estrogen, meaning that testosterone production will continue to be suppressed, and then meaning that until all the exogenous testosterone is depleted endogenous testosterone will be suppressed, which is no different than just coming off and not doing and PCT at all.
What am I missing here? Am I wrong about how nolva acts on the body, or is it just more complicated than that?
The idea of PCT is to get the gonads producing endogenous testosterone again, and a drug like clomid or AIs or HCG all seem to make sense because clomid acts on the receptors in the brain, giving the brain the impression there is no/low estrogen in the body and therefore low/no testosterone which stimulates the signalling hormones leading to production of testosterone. AI's more or less the same except the receptors aren't being blocked, the enzyme that converts testosterone to estrogen is destroyed, resulting in the brain not seeing estrogen so again, signals testosterone production. But with Nolva, shouldn't the brain see the same amount of estrogen, meaning that testosterone production will continue to be suppressed, and then meaning that until all the exogenous testosterone is depleted endogenous testosterone will be suppressed, which is no different than just coming off and not doing and PCT at all.
What am I missing here? Am I wrong about how nolva acts on the body, or is it just more complicated than that?