Avodart - question for the experts

Well, except for the valid statements "Because the compound is a 19-nor, it is less prone to aromatization than is its analogue with the 19-methyl," or "Because the compound is a DHT derivative, it is not subject to metabolism by 5a-reductase."

Anything other than those, though, and no, the attempted extrapolations are not valid.
 
Thank you. As I stated, "I could be wrong".. I always aim to please (and stimulate):). I have high value of your thoughts and opinion to be clear from this point forward. Your work in the world of Anabolics and Prohormones undoubtedly speaks for itself...!

I find it interesting that the community focuses solely on TT so intensely when clearly the active metabolites are the operational factors. I have always understood E2 to be one of two, primary Estrogen derivatives of Free T. I have not seen anything regarding any further break down. Regarding DHT. It appears to be documented as the other primary, and andogen type derivate from Free T. I also understand the DHT further metabolizes into 2 or 3 other active components. I understood masteron (Drostanolone), to be one of them. I personally am not sure how any of them actually work, as they are rarely discussed due to the apparent lack of interest in the nuts and bolts, that the average AAS user exhibits. I would like to know more.

I recently read that masteron actually competes with E2 receptor activity, thus limiting one's exposure to the ravaging devil it is...:rolleyes: I find this very interesting. If there is anything to E2 contributing to, or being the primary cause of prostate cancer, then not only would it not be as harmful as a DHT opponent would believe, but indeed mayber beneficial. So if there is anything to E2 causing prostate enlargement of any type, SOLO may find himself even further swollen up with his discontinuation..!!..??

My off beat thoughts on this: If there is truth to this then it would add merit to my "swing/swap" and "single receptor type" hypothesis. That all of these type hormone receptors are capable of interacting with both sex hormones, at that a predominance by occupation defines this. In short, androgens reside in the muscle tissue receptors due to their preponderance, and relevance to these tissues. The same for fatty tissue. I believe the prostate can equally swing either way, and that this is the root of the prostate problem as related to hormones. That control of these receptors is based solely on who got their first, and that this control may slide in either direction based on temporary conditions of infux and recession of which.

Back to current publication. I also read this: The 2 Alkylation Found in drostanolone(Masteron) considerably intensifies the anabolic effects of dihydrotestosterone which, without the 2 alkaylation would not be highly active in muscle tissues. Because of this drostanolone can be used with great effect as a bulking agent. Drostanolone provides the user with a consistent gain of high quality muscle mass. For advanced effect, drostanolone can also be used along side other steroids. Users that mix drostanolone with steroids such as Nandrolone Decanoate can see some encouraging result, providing high muscle gain while retaining very little water.

The source is questionable as I am unsure of it.. Could you please take this opportunity to give your thoughts on those two issues? And could you please expound on the various durivatives of DHT, and a brief synapsis of your understanding of them. I would also appreciate a quick comment of my statement of personal thought on the hormonal receptor issue. There is no need to blast with with demands for documentation. Just tell me I am crazy if you think so and a brief polite explanation would suffice. I only ran it by you out of respect.:)




Masteron is not potentiated by 5AR and therefore, unlike testosterone, does not result in higher activity in the prostate than in the rest of the body.

I know there are countless steroid writers who are not medicinal chemists and have no education in that field but play medicinal chemist and announce how things are "DHT derivatives and therefore," etc but they really and truly don't know what they are talking about when claiming that this supposedly proves what they say it does.

Everyone would do well to forevermore ignore every single statement that is based on "because it's a DHT derivative" or "because it's a 19-nor."

The compounds need to be evaluated based on their own properties, not on mistakenly-conceived "family" thinking.
 
I find it interesting that the community focuses solely on TT so intensely when clearly the active metabolites are the operational factors.

Agreed. While further parts of the problem include, as you point out, estrogen levels being ignored or not given sufficient attention, the focus on total testosterone is mistaken, as the free value gives the full information on biological effect.

(The total value is only the product, so to speak, of the free value and the amounts of SHBG and serum albumin.)

I have always understood E2 to be one of two, primary Estrogen derivatives of Free T. I have not seen anything regarding any further break down.

For a little further detail, the two highly estrogenic metabolites are estradiol and estrone; a third weakly-estrogenic metabolite is estriol.

Further downstream metabolites of the estrogens include catechol estrogens which unfortunately are carcinogenic, but aren't relevant to bodybuilding other than that this would be a reason, though of very low risk, to avoid allowing estrogen levels to become too abnormally elevated.

Regarding DHT. It appears to be documented as the other primary, and andogen type derivate from Free T. I also understand the DHT further metabolizes into 2 or 3 other active components.

The only significantly active metabolite I can think of is 5alpha-androstanediol.

I understood masteron (Drostanolone), to be one of them.

No, Masteron (dromostanolone) can only be produced synthetically.

I personally am not sure how any of them actually work, as they are rarely discussed due to the apparent lack of interest in the nuts and bolts, that the average AAS user exhibits. I would like to know more.

Dromostanolone presumably interacts with the androgen receptor in the same manner as testosterone. It presumably also has non-androgen-receptor mediated activities, or AR-mediated non-genomic activities, in the same manner as testosterone. The relative potency between these different means of activity may not be the same between the compounds. As a guess -- and it is only from practical observation, not scientific data -- dromostanolone may tend to be mostly effective directly via AR-mediated genomic activity (Class I) rather than predominantly by other activities (Class II.)

The lack of a double bond prevents aromatization or metabolism by the 5AR enzyme.

The 2alpha-methyl group that distinguishes it from DHT inhibits metabolism by the 3bHSD enzyme, thus preventing or minimizing conversion to an androstanediol derivative. Such metabolism is believed to partially deactivate DHT in muscle, causing it to be a poorer anabolic than otherwise might be expected.

I recently read that masteron actually competes with E2 receptor activity, thus limiting one's exposure to the ravaging devil it is...:rolleyes: I find this very interesting. If there is anything to E2 contributing to, or being the primary cause of prostate cancer, then not only would it not be as harmful as a DHT opponent would believe, but indeed mayber beneficial. So if there is anything to E2 causing prostate enlargement of any type, SOLO may find himself even further swollen up with his discontinuation..!!..??

The suggestions I was giving wouldn't have raised estradiol.


My off beat thoughts on this: If there is truth to this then it would add merit to my "swing/swap" and "single receptor type" hypothesis. That all of these type hormone receptors are capable of interacting with both sex hormones, at that a predominance by occupation defines this. In short, androgens reside in the muscle tissue receptors due to their preponderance, and relevance to these tissues. The same for fatty tissue. I believe the prostate can equally swing either way, and that this is the root of the prostate problem as related to hormones. That control of these receptors is based solely on who got their first, and that this control may slide in either direction based on temporary conditions of infux and recession of which.

Back to current publication. I also read this: The 2 Alkylation Found in drostanolone(Masteron) considerably intensifies the anabolic effects of dihydrotestosterone which, without the 2 alkaylation would not be highly active in muscle tissues. Because of this drostanolone can be used with great effect as a bulking agent. Drostanolone provides the user with a consistent gain of high quality muscle mass. For advanced effect, drostanolone can also be used along side other steroids. Users that mix drostanolone with steroids such as Nandrolone Decanoate can see some encouraging result, providing high muscle gain while retaining very little water.

The source is questionable as I am unsure of it.. Could you please take this opportunity to give your thoughts on those two issues? And could you please expound on the various durivatives of DHT, and a brief synapsis of your understanding of them. I would also appreciate a quick comment of my statement of personal thought on the hormonal receptor issue. There is no need to blast with with demands for documentation. Just tell me I am crazy if you think so and a brief polite explanation would suffice. I only ran it by you out of respect.:)

The writeup on Masteron is a reasonable one, though if there is a suggestion that there is a need to stack with Deca, this is not the case.

You are on the right track in thinking that there is often "cross-talk" so to speak between steroid hormones and receptors other than their nominal target. For example it's not unusual for androgenic steroids to have some interaction at glucocorticoid receptors, and it's possible for some androgens to have some blocking activity at estrogen receptors.

But it's not out of the predominance of the number of that sort of receptors in the tissue, but of the relative affinities of the steroids for the receptors. As an example, while it may be true (I don't recall: it is the case for a very similar compound at least, and may well be for this one) that Masteron can occupy but does not activate the estrogen receptor, even a rather high concentration of dromostanolone may occupy only a fairly modest percentage of estrogen receptors, while rather tiny concentrations of estradiol are all that are needed to occupy a high percentage of the receptors, as estradiol has far higher affinity for the ER.

So the most that could be expected is some tempering of the effect of estradiol, rather than powerfully suppressing it.
 
Oh, and on derivatives of DHT:

To be precise, a compound is a "derivative" of an existing natural compound if, in chemical synthesis, it is made or can be made from that compound as a starting material. If it is similar to an existing natural compound but has to be made from another material, it then is an "analogue."

So this means that where I don't know the synthesis of a steroid, I can't say if it's a derivative or not.

Oxandrolone is a DHT derivative, as is oxymetholone. Dromostanolone (also called drostanolone) almost undoubtedly is. Methenolone probably is, as is mesterolone. Stanozolol could well be.

If someone wants to be -- and that's fine if so -- a little looser on the meaning and use the term "DHT derivative" to mean any androgen steroid that doesn't have a double bond in the 4 or 5 position, then all of the above are DHT derivatives by that meaning.

There are individual writeups of each of them.
 
Thanks for the help..

I just always considered the term derivative mathmatically so to speak. "made from", or "arrived at as a result of a breakdown", " A product of"........... This is probably the middle ground of what we are dealing with I am guessing. I just want to elaborate because I am thinking there is more here that meets the eye on first sight.

I just thought the Masteron was a laboratory totally syntheticaly created copy of a homone that was created in nature by the metabolism of DHT?? Dont know why. This was an older notion I had from 5 years back. For examples sake, I still could not make the determination yet for your terms. So then the difference as to what it would have been if that were true, would be did they start from nature, or rootamentaly synthetic. Right? Natural compound beginning = derivative.. Totally sythetic imitation or "genesis" would be an Analogue??

So actually one further to make sure I understand. I realize my confusion as I usually use the term derivative referring to the body's natural processes that go on within. So when I skew abroad to snthetic steroids, I loose my way. So I am guessing we have both NATURAL and SYNTHETIC derivatives? RIght. Only the synthetic could be either a derivative or an analouge? Right. NO actually I guess you could have analouges that are introduced to the body, that are metabolized "naturally", but began as an analouge introduced.... So, to totally laymanize everything here today. Would this be a synthetic analouge natural derivative:D? Hmm Then what could ya do with that?

Either way, From a chemical processing standpoint, DOES an ANALOGUE ever become a derivative? and at what point? But biologically speaking, aren't the derivatives of DHT you listed simply natural derivatives, and wouldn't the ones that were totally sytheticaly manufactured simply analogue derivatives??? I think I am just misunderstanding context, and that this is where you are discerning. Is it really that crude to refer to ANY chemically similar structure, when referring to a human metabolites created, simple as a durivative of a parent compound? Also, when you say a derivative is made from naturally occuring as a base, Does this mean that if further replication can be done without more natural base, it has become an analogue? Or is it a principle of foundation merited by original inception forever on??

I am not being a smartass, just trying to understand. While I am a layman, I am getting the feeling you are splitting hairs, with favoritism to the chemistry department, so to speak. Perhaps then my understanding of Masteron was correct and I need to re-phrase the question..... Is the chemical compound know as Masteron chemically identical to any of the naturally occuring metabolites of DHT?

Also I am thinking obviously I have little knowledge of molecular biology and and chemisty other than very basic coursework. But I am guessing we have used the term "derivative" by three different definitions here today? I am also thinking that this is why I have been leaning toward the use of the term "metabolite" lately.:) Any further teaching here is appreciated. Am I on track at all?
 
Masteron (dromostanolone) is not identical to any naturally-occuring metabolite of DHT. It has a 2-methyl group which cannot be added to the steroid skeleton by any natural biochemical process.

I think that my description of the distinctions between "derivative" and "analogue" above is accurate in how the term is used in medicinal chemistry: that is to say, by those in the science of designing new drug molecules. I believe the terms are used in the same manner in pharmacology.

Metabolic products of a compound are called metabolites instead of derivatives. So for example, DHT, estradiol, or say 4-androstenediol are metabolites of testosterone, not derivatives.

It hypothetically might be the case that an analogue might be metabolized to a derivative. I suppose it could be that there could be a drug that cannot be synthesized from a naturally occurring compound, but which can be metabolized to a naturally occurring compound. I don't know if any such examples exist.
 
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Thanks for further. I am getting it. I would get some text, but wouldn't that potentially just make me twice as dangerous?:drooling:;):) Perhaps I will remain in a happy ignorant place.....:)

Masteron (dromostanolone) is not identical to any naturally-occuring metabolite of DHT. It has a 2-methyl group which cannot be added to the steroid skeleton by any natural biochemical process.

I think that my description of the distinctions between "derivative" and "analogue" above is accurate in how the term is used in medicinal chemistry: that is to say, by those in the science of designing new drug molecules. I believe the terms are used in the same manner in pharmacology.

Metabolic products of a compound are called metabolites instead of derivatives. So for example, DHT, estradiol, or say 4-androstenediol are metabolites of testosterone, not derivatives.

It hypothetically might be the case that an analogue might be metabolized to a derivative. I suppose it could be that there could be a drug that cannot be synthesized from a naturally occurring compound, but which can be metabolized to a naturally occurring compound. I don't know if any such examples exist.
 
I know that there are SERMs out there that are documented to shrink prostate and associated significantly.... Look up Toremifene (fareston)... Read the prescribing info....

I'm interested in finding out more about this as I'm getting to the age where prostate problems could be be around the corner. I looked up Toremifene and found a couple places that sell it as a 'new item', but never came up with anything about using it to treat BPH.

Can you provide a link to where you read that ? Thanks .
 
Actually you need to look in the articles section of this forum. Apparently there are some recent changes. So the info on the company stuff.... It just may be too new and risky..

I'm interested in finding out more about this as I'm getting to the age where prostate problems could be be around the corner. I looked up Toremifene and found a couple places that sell it as a 'new item', but never came up with anything about using it to treat BPH.

Can you provide a link to where you read that ? Thanks .
 
Andriole GL, Bostwick DG, Brawley OW, et al. Effect of Dutasteride on the Risk of Prostate Cancer. N Engl J Med;362(13):1192-202.

Background We conducted a study to determine whether dutasteride reduces the risk of incident prostate cancer, as detected on biopsy, among men who are at increased risk for the disease.

Methods In this 4-year, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group study, we compared dutasteride, at a dose of 0.5 mg daily, with placebo. Men were eligible for inclusion in the study if they were 50 to 75 years of age, had a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 2.5 to 10.0 ng per milliliter, and had had one negative prostate biopsy (6 to 12 cores) within 6 months before enrollment. Subjects underwent a 10-core transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy at 2 and 4 years.

Results Among 6729 men who underwent a biopsy or prostate surgery, cancer was detected in 659 of the 3305 men in the dutasteride group, as compared with 858 of the 3424 men in the placebo group, representing a relative risk reduction with dutasteride of 22.8% (95% confidence interval, 15.2 to 29.8) over the 4-year study period (P<0.001). Overall, in years 1 through 4, among the 6706 men who underwent a needle biopsy, there were 220 tumors with a Gleason score of 7 to 10 among 3299 men in the dutasteride group and 233 among 3407 men in the placebo group (P=0.81). During years 3 and 4, there were 12 tumors with a Gleason score of 8 to 10 in the dutasteride group, as compared with only 1 in the placebo group (P=0.003). Dutasteride therapy, as compared with placebo, resulted in a reduction in the rate of acute urinary retention (1.6% vs. 6.7%, a 77.3% relative reduction). The incidence of adverse events was similar to that in studies of dutasteride therapy for benign prostatic hyperplasia, except that in our study, as compared with previous studies, the relative incidence of the composite category of cardiac failure was higher in the dutasteride group than in the placebo group (0.7% [30 men] vs. 0.4% [16 men], P=0.03).

Conclusions Over the course of the 4-year study period, dutasteride reduced the risk of incident prostate cancer detected on biopsy and improved the outcomes related to benign prostatic hyperplasia. (ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT00056407 .)
 

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You know Doc, and I think I pointed it out before. I would personally guess that the study was worthless as the seeds of the cancer are probably already sewn???? in those aga brackets regardless......

Hey wait, I am 40 now.!!!! Guess I better pick a philosophy......:drooling::D

Andriole GL, Bostwick DG, Brawley OW, et al. Effect of Dutasteride on the Risk of Prostate Cancer. N Engl J Med;362(13):1192-202.

Background We conducted a study to determine whether dutasteride reduces the risk of incident prostate cancer, as detected on biopsy, among men who are at increased risk for the disease.

Methods In this 4-year, multicenter, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group study, we compared dutasteride, at a dose of 0.5 mg daily, with placebo. Men were eligible for inclusion in the study if they were 50 to 75 years of age, had a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 2.5 to 10.0 ng per milliliter, and had had one negative prostate biopsy (6 to 12 cores) within 6 months before enrollment. Subjects underwent a 10-core transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy at 2 and 4 years.

Results Among 6729 men who underwent a biopsy or prostate surgery, cancer was detected in 659 of the 3305 men in the dutasteride group, as compared with 858 of the 3424 men in the placebo group, representing a relative risk reduction with dutasteride of 22.8% (95% confidence interval, 15.2 to 29.8) over the 4-year study period (P<0.001). Overall, in years 1 through 4, among the 6706 men who underwent a needle biopsy, there were 220 tumors with a Gleason score of 7 to 10 among 3299 men in the dutasteride group and 233 among 3407 men in the placebo group (P=0.81). During years 3 and 4, there were 12 tumors with a Gleason score of 8 to 10 in the dutasteride group, as compared with only 1 in the placebo group (P=0.003). Dutasteride therapy, as compared with placebo, resulted in a reduction in the rate of acute urinary retention (1.6% vs. 6.7%, a 77.3% relative reduction). The incidence of adverse events was similar to that in studies of dutasteride therapy for benign prostatic hyperplasia, except that in our study, as compared with previous studies, the relative incidence of the composite category of cardiac failure was higher in the dutasteride group than in the placebo group (0.7% [30 men] vs. 0.4% [16 men], P=0.03).

Conclusions Over the course of the 4-year study period, dutasteride reduced the risk of incident prostate cancer detected on biopsy and improved the outcomes related to benign prostatic hyperplasia. (ClinicalTrials.gov number, NCT00056407 .)
 
Hi !

I was thinking of using Avodart as a libido suppressant. Based on what I read, this drug is indicated in the treatment of hair loss. It acts by lowering DHT levels, the hormone responsible for exterior male characteristics in the body. The goal would be to kill the libido while not messing with the testosterone which builds muscles. How wrong am I ?

(Sorry for digging up such an old topic but it's what I stumbled upon on google).
 
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Hi !

I was thinking of using Avodart as a libido suppressant. Based on what I read, this drug is indicated in the treatment of hair loss. It acts by lowering DHT levels, the hormone responsible for exterior male characteristics in the body. The goal would be to kill the libido while not messing with the testosterone which builds muscles. How wrong am I ?

(Sorry for digging up such an old topic but it's what I stumbled upon on google).


WTF are you talking about!!! Are you some sort of alien spammer!
 
Ok so I still suck at biology. I'm sorry I'm really confused by all this stuff. Is there a way to suppress libido without messing too much with your gains ?
 
Hello again !

I assure you that I am not a troll. I asked this question because I am confident that a decreased libido would definitely improve my quality of life. Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated.
 
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