My husband saw the urologist today (for the first time) and indeed he does have Peyronie's, caught early, and the Dr. does not know exactly what causes it but one theory is that it can be secondary to ED; I'll leave out details unless someone wants to know. ANyway, of course he's smart enough to conclude that the ED is secondary to testosterone level of 200. That level was two months ago; tests as of last week are not on his desk yet, but he wants to see whether the androgel (10 mg per day) is being absorbed and is already thinking ahead to Testim instead. He also said that the 200 T level is also what's preventing my husband from losing weight. In other words, like we already knew, everything is all tied in together, with the T of 200 having something to do with diabetes, also (he has not been diagnosed with diabetes probably because of not meeting technical criteria, but who wants that kind of diagnosis on an insurance record, anyway?) He or I will update once tests are in, but I've heard the word "Testim" thrown around here and was wondering if it's common to have low absorption of Androgel (I ask because there does not seem to be any change since starting it.) Thanks in advance.