GLP Non responder's

Here2Learn

Member
I’ve been reading studies on GLP’s and found this interesting. Just data points. I read another one saying those who are sicker or had early childhood obesity or trauma had higher rates of non response too.

Quote from study
“Conclusions
A high HbA1c at baseline and previous non-insulin therapy were the main predictors of a greater response (optimal HbA1c and weight response) to GLP1ra in both men and women. This may aid in treatment decision-making before initiating treatment with GLP-1RAs.”

 
Yet ask any underground GLP user, or any peptide user, how they decide to dilute their peptide, and 99% of the time it's based on convenience, and they have no clue as to there being any significance to water/peptide ratio. Yet it's a VERY important factor. That's how backwards "bro science" is in regards to peptides.
Do you have an in depth explanation on the significance of this ratio posted anywhere? Perhaps geared towards those who were dropped on their heads as children and had a broken coffee machine this morning?
 
I’ve been reading studies on GLP’s and found this interesting. Just data points. I read another one saying those who are sicker or had early childhood obesity or trauma had higher rates of non response too.

Quote from study
“Conclusions
A high HbA1c at baseline and previous non-insulin therapy were the main predictors of a greater response (optimal HbA1c and weight response) to GLP1ra in both men and women. This may aid in treatment decision-making before initiating treatment with GLP-1RAs.”

I believe there is a great deal of truth in this.

From personal experience and what I see with others in person, those who start glp-1s and are already diabetic with high A1-C + overweight and taking glucose lowering drugs have been losing a higher percentage of weight in a shorter amount of time vs overweight subjects who are not diabetic and have normal A1-C when they start glp-1s.
 
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