NoRevolution
New Member
Hi there,
Wanted to get some advice from those more knowledgeable in HPTA / testicular function. A quick background: Been cycling on and off for the last 5 years, with consistent HCG use of 300iu EOD to preserve fertility / prevent testicular atrophy. The reasoning behind this was two these two studies:
According to the first study, IF your are on testosterone sufficient to completely hinder LH production, 250iu/EOD HCG can preserve normal testicular testosterone production via stimulation of the LH receptor. This will prevent testicular atrophy and theoretically make recovery easier. And according to the second study, this also assists in sperm production although some may find it beneficial to add HMG.
I verified that this was indeed the case. On cycle, I added 250iu/EOD HCG, and my testosterone rose by around 700 ng/dl, thus indicating testes were producing testosterone. I also noticed no testicular atrophy during the 12 week long cycle (volume was measure at 25ml+ via orchidometer). Cycling off, I continued the 250iu/EOD HCG. After a steroids washout period of 8 weeks, testosterone came in at 900 ng/dl with 250iu/EOD HCG, thus indicating that HCG was continuing to stimulate the testes.
For the next 4 years, I continued to cycle. Despite cycling off AAS frequently, I never failed to take my 250iu/EOD HCG. And I noticed something: The first time I cycled off, HCG caused testes to produce 900 ng/dl. After another year or two, it was down to 300 ng/dl (same dose). Finally, I decided to take a 6 months break from AAS after 5 years of cycling. And total testosterone came back at just 63 ng/dl. This was despite 250iu/EOD HCG, and an LH level of 2.9 mIU/mL.
Initially, I doubted if the HCG I was using (Ovidac) was geniune. But a serum bHCG level was taken and came back elevated at 7 mIU/mL. Additionally, no testicular atrophy was ever observed, and testes remain at the same volume as 5 years ago. So, I am left with one simple conclusion: After years of HCG usage, it has desensitized the leydig cells in my testes such that they no longer respond to neither endogenous LH, or HCG. Based on the thread below, most of us here (including Scally) believe that HCG desensitization is a myth:
Thanks
Wanted to get some advice from those more knowledgeable in HPTA / testicular function. A quick background: Been cycling on and off for the last 5 years, with consistent HCG use of 300iu EOD to preserve fertility / prevent testicular atrophy. The reasoning behind this was two these two studies:
Low-dose human chorionic gonadotropin maintains intratesticular testosterone in normal men with testosterone-induced gonadotropin suppression
Therapy with human chorionic gonadotrophin alone induces spermatogenesis in men with isolated hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism--long-term follow-up
According to the first study, IF your are on testosterone sufficient to completely hinder LH production, 250iu/EOD HCG can preserve normal testicular testosterone production via stimulation of the LH receptor. This will prevent testicular atrophy and theoretically make recovery easier. And according to the second study, this also assists in sperm production although some may find it beneficial to add HMG.
I verified that this was indeed the case. On cycle, I added 250iu/EOD HCG, and my testosterone rose by around 700 ng/dl, thus indicating testes were producing testosterone. I also noticed no testicular atrophy during the 12 week long cycle (volume was measure at 25ml+ via orchidometer). Cycling off, I continued the 250iu/EOD HCG. After a steroids washout period of 8 weeks, testosterone came in at 900 ng/dl with 250iu/EOD HCG, thus indicating that HCG was continuing to stimulate the testes.
For the next 4 years, I continued to cycle. Despite cycling off AAS frequently, I never failed to take my 250iu/EOD HCG. And I noticed something: The first time I cycled off, HCG caused testes to produce 900 ng/dl. After another year or two, it was down to 300 ng/dl (same dose). Finally, I decided to take a 6 months break from AAS after 5 years of cycling. And total testosterone came back at just 63 ng/dl. This was despite 250iu/EOD HCG, and an LH level of 2.9 mIU/mL.
Initially, I doubted if the HCG I was using (Ovidac) was geniune. But a serum bHCG level was taken and came back elevated at 7 mIU/mL. Additionally, no testicular atrophy was ever observed, and testes remain at the same volume as 5 years ago. So, I am left with one simple conclusion: After years of HCG usage, it has desensitized the leydig cells in my testes such that they no longer respond to neither endogenous LH, or HCG. Based on the thread below, most of us here (including Scally) believe that HCG desensitization is a myth:
HCG and desensitization....
I am correct here? I can provide all the necessary bloodwork if needed, would just like some second opinions of this!Thanks
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