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SO if Bill is still watching these are questions and not statements:
I dont see how "saturation" could apply other than the feeling of getting used to cellular activity in muscle.
4 GRAMS!!!! You of course are talking a serously trained MOFO!! I guarantee you could saturate me with about 1 gram a week.
But dont you also have to consider all the derivative hormones especially with regard to estrogen to define saturation??
It would be interesting to take an individual who is supping massive amounts of testosterone and measure the different intervals in which EXCRETION increases, both changed and unchaged, given a preset administration protocal....
It just seems to me that any blames pointed toward receptors should be stated I guess more like "resistance". And this is an extremely rare condition qualified more like an illness I would speculate, rather than a possible temporary condition???/
Saturation has a pharmacological meaning: it means that almost all the receptors are occupied.
How could you guarantee that nearly all your receptors are occupied at 1 gram per week?
I'd agree it's a large percentage, almost surely way past the majority.
It is only on almost all the receptors being occupied.
Once steady-state is reached, rate of excretion equals rate of administration.
So far as I can tell any objection makes no sense at all. The closest I can come to making sense out of the objection is from people thinking that effect is defined by RATE of gain.
They see a slower rate of gain and call this less effect, and then blame the receptors.
So far as I can tell, that's all there is to that theory, and it isn't sound thinking.
Just because the ARs don't downregulate doesn't mean the body will respond the same way. ARs are one piece of the puzzle. Does opiate receptors downregulate? I don't think so but the effect and tolerance will change even though at the receptor there is no change... ???
Do you have any idea of what you are talking about?
At least try to talk in complete sentences. WTF does "Just because the ARs don't downregulate doesn't mean the body will respond the same way" mean?
And yes, all the opiate receptors D/R. There are several of them. Receptors arent interchangable.
Ya might wanna bone up on you basics before you take on the challenging stuff.
Gawd, I hate to be such an asshole but I cant help it.
Exemestane is a suicide inhibitor of the estrogen receptor which actually destroys the receptor, but eventually new receptors replace what was lost. I believe normally the receptor "internalizes" and just will no longer be able to bind to anything until things normalize or it is given a reason to do otherwise. I don't believe any natural process even causes destruction of receptors, yet the body can still recreate new ones.
As far as tolerance goes I dont think if you use AAS for real long periods of time like 3 months or greater and use very high doses you dont build up a tolerance for them and you will respond to them very well. have done over 30 cycles in the past 30 years,the first 4 years i did 2 or 3 cycles a year,8 weeks on and 8 weeks off. Mostly Decca and test. I never saw much gains in muscle mass after 8 weeks so i cycled them 8 on and 8 off or some times longer that 8 weeks off. 3 years ago i started cycling again 8 on and 8 off with 1 cycle of 12 weeks to see if i could make more gains after 8 weeks.I dont use extremely high doses like 1gm a week of test but i use a substantial amount.A typical cycle is 600mg Test E a week,600mg EQ a week and 150mg Tren A EOD. I still respond to the steroids like i did when when i was younger.I dont see where i have built up a tolerance for steroids even after the 3 years i have been using them recently. Extremely high doses or long cycles might make you tolerant but i havnt seen any tolerance in my case.
Wouldn't this be a result of tolerance and the down-regulation that follows?..
Myostatin (a growth inhibitor) peaks at about 8 weeks in men administering Testosterone. Therefore growth inhibition is a likely cause of stalled gains at the 2 month mark.