MANWHORE
Subscriber
So, taking a 98% pure Test E from 250mg to 255mg
is not the same as a 250mg Test E at 100% purity?
is not the same as a 250mg Test E at 100% purity?
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature may not be available in some browsers.
You're getting NOT TEST E, with that other %.. that's what you're getting250 mg of test E is the same. 98% or 100% or 50% purity, you are still getting 250mg of test E.
The question is, what else are you getting with that 2% or 50% of unknowns.
So, doubling a 50% purity gear, won't
ever give same results as a 98% gear. Correct
How does this math add up 80% but it is 68% pure.You are doing extra math.
There was no powder tested, just the finished product.
The concentration of the finished oil is 202mg/ml or 80% of advertised concentration.
Let's compare to Breaking bad...
If I have Test E in powder form, at 68% purity and I want to make full dose vials at 250mg/ml
I would add 367mg of powder to a ml of oil. 367x.68= 250
If Titan adds 297 mg of the same powder to 1ml of oil, he gets 202 mg/ml oil
Assuming his oil was pure, his final product would still be 68% purity.
Well this lines up to what he told me but I always thought the way voltrader said it was right.If I have Test E in powder form, at 68% purity and I want to make full dose vials at 250mg/ml
I would add 367mg of powder to a ml of oil. 367x.68= 250
If Titan adds 297 mg of the same powder to 1ml of oil, he gets 202 mg/ml oil
Assuming his oil was pure, his final product would still be 68% purity.
yes. You are correct. Just harder math to use as example.Wouldn't the powder take up some space too? Lets say that 297mg takes up .1ml then wouldn't you add that to .9ml of oil so that the outcome is 1ml?
If Titan adds 297 mg of the same powder to 1ml of oil, he gets 202 mg/ml oil
Assuming his oil was pure, his final product would still be 68% purity.