Mass Spec Thread

Let's compare to Breaking bad
Jessie make some meth, and has 80% purity. He's just not that good of a chemist. There are some leftover compounds in his meth that should have been removed during the refining process, plus a little cayenne pepper.

Heisneberg makes his meth, and has it all perfect, comes out at 98% purity.

Now suppose you want to buy your meth dissolved in oil.
Your vial says 100mg of meth per ml.
Heisenburg would add 1010mg of his meth to 10ml of oil, and be dosed at 100mg
Jessie could add 1200mg of his meth to 10ml of oil and be dosed at 100mg

The purity does not change the final dose of meth.


Easy as that people.....
 
Wouldn't the powder take up some space too? Lets say that 297mg takes up .1ml then wouldn't you add that to .9ml of oil so that the outcome is 1ml?
this is the displacement.. You add less oil..
I believe Test E is .9400 for each gram of raw..

easy way is to take the raw..
say 100g then count the ML you get after brewing, divide that by 100g
then you come up with what mg/ml
then you multiply that by the % purity to get actual dose..

You will still have 98% purity but
with the strength of now 250mg Test E, you just need 255mg Test E raw...

25 bottles 20ml/ea Test E 100g raw used
comes to 4g/bottle.. 200mg/ml now take 98% into account comes to 196mg/ml..

with the 2% Strychnine still in it :-)
 
Last edited:
Ok, i've got a few minutes, so let me explain the spectra. First off, you do not figure in "displacement" of the test in the oil, sorry @MANWHORE. The compound dissolves in the oil, the volume delta is assumed to be zero for practical purposes. it is not zero, but it is negligible.

for the test e sample: 10microliters is dissolved into a know amount of chloroform (1.5 ml), and the sample in chloroform is injected into the mass spec. the mass spec has a very short column on the front end ("Waters") prior to the ionization chamber. that short column crudely separates the contents of the sample. bb, ba and oil blow through, and compound is shown as a peak or peaks. thus, in the spectrum you see one of more peaks, those are the "stuff" in the oil, the powder, whatever it is. the "stuff" is ionized, accelerted through the instrument field, and are detected as ions impacting the detector. molcular weight in "TOF" (time of flight) is determined by how long it takes the charged compound to travel the length of the ion trap.

if you look at the spectra, there are two numbers, one is "TIC" or total ion count. that is all the "stuff" that hit the detector. for the Benzyl alcohol, benzyl benzoate, oil chloroform you "tell" the instrument basically not to look for low molecular weight crap like that (not scan less than a certain mw). the sample contains 202 mg of "stuff" based on total ion count.

there are two peaks in the first spectrum, those peaks are the "stuff" one peak is test e, the other is whatever else is in the sample.

second spectrum is identifying test e, molecular weight is 401.3056 (calc'd).

third spectrum is comparing relative areas of peaks to total area (in terms of ions hitting the detector). thus, you can calculate the total number of test e ion impacts/total ion impacts, and get the percent purity.

this is all a bit simplified, but should give you a flavor.

the upshot, you get the total dissolved solids (202 mg of "stuff") from total ion count, of that 202 mg of stuff, 68% of it is test e.

the final tale, 202 mg of stuff * .68 (the percentage of the "stuff" dissolved in the oil) gives you 137.4 mg of test e per ml of sample, or just around 50% dose, which correlates nicely with my bloodwork showing about 50% of what it should be (mine was 1940 ng.dl, should have been > 4000 ng.dl at 2.5 days post-injection).

for those of you who keep insisting ~2000 ng/dl is ok on ~ 600 mg a week, stop. you're wrong, we have multiple data sources and scally saying you're wrong. stop it.

pm me if you have other questions. there are details that are not clear from the spectra, but the overall method is sound +/-10% in my estimation.
 
Sorry to bring up old posts, but I'm trying to better understand Titan's MS results. The following is referring to MFL's Tren Ace.

The dosage being slightly over stated refers to the amount of powder disolved. So its saying the oil has around 80-90% of the stated mg/ml of disolved powder.

Of the powder that is disolved it is only 53% actual tren ace. The rest is fillers and by products.

So on the low side you have 100x.8x.53=42.4mg/ml

High side
100x.9x.53= 47.7mg/ml

So wouldn't this mean that the Test E contains 202mg/ml of the raw, and the raw is 68% pure therefore the actual dosage is 137mg/ml (202 * .68). Am I making this more confusing than it should be? My brain is turning to mush.
 
Thats my old post and it might be wrong, I am confused now too. Angus was who told me that originally. I dunno now though in the light of what others are saying.
 
Thanks for the explanation LS. I thought that is how it worked. So again, another test telling us we got screwed. When was the last good test where someone had over 80%? HTP maybe? Too bad he didn't turn out to be ok. His stuff seemed to be.

Actually, i am not super happy with 85%, but compared to what we have seen going out to consumers i would take it and run if i could. Ah well, back to chasing that mystical supplier unicorn who sends you what you order and has over 80% purity.
 
the upshot, you get the total dissolved solids (202 mg of "stuff") from total ion count, of that 202 mg of stuff, 68% of it is test e.

the final tale, 202 mg of stuff * .68 (the percentage of the "stuff" dissolved in the oil) gives you 137.4 mg of test e per ml of sample, or just around 50% dose, which correlates nicely with my bloodwork showing about 50% of what it should be (mine was 1940 ng.dl, should have been > 4000 ng.dl at 2.5 days post-injection).

Gotcha, thanks for dumbing it down. I think I got it now :)
 
Sorry to bring up old posts, but I'm trying to better understand Titan's MS results. The following is referring to MFL's Tren Ace.



So wouldn't this mean that the Test E contains 202mg/ml of the raw, and the raw is 68% pure therefore the actual dosage is 137mg/ml (202 * .68). Am I making this more confusing than it should be? My brain is turning to mush.

What you are doing is making it make sense. Cut that shit out. ;)
 
The Dr that is doing the mass spec for angus has already figured out the actual concentration. you do not multiply by .68 to see the concentration. The number the report shows is the actual concentration.

Here's a quote from angus describing some test P that he had analyzed.
"This Test P is clean and clear, the oil is fresh and the purity is at 88%. Here is the kicker though, even though it is at 88% it is still at 100mg/ml, which means that is was slightly overdosed in the first place. Always nice when it's overdosed a bit to compensate for purity. At least then you are getting your money's worth and getting the full Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient"

http://www.eroids.com/pics/mass-spec-test-p-from-roidsource
 
The Dr that is doing the mass spec for angus has already figured out the actual concentration. you do not multiply by .68 to see the concentration. The number the report shows is the actual concentration.

Then what does the 68% purity refer to?
 
I asked angus to clarify. I used to think ls was right as that was the method I always used but after looking at some of angus's post I am starting to think burr is right.

Hopefully angus gets back to me tomorrow.
 
I had upper college level reading skills...they told me...but lightspan just melted what little brains I had..lol.
 
The issue in question is what does the 202mg/ml refer to. The total concentration of "stuff" in the vial or the concentration of the tested substance, in this case test e?

If it's total stuff then u need to multiply by .68, otherwise you take the concentration as is.
 
I asked angus to clarify. I used to think ls was right as that was the method I always used but after looking at some of angus's post I am starting to think burr is right.

Hopefully angus gets back to me tomorrow.

Thanks! I can see what LS is saying but Burrr makes sense too. Whichever it is, it needs clarification.
 
The issue in question is what does the 202mg/ml refer to. The total concentration of "stuff" in the vial or the concentration of the tested substance, in this case test e?

If it's total stuff then u need to multiply by .68, otherwise you take the concentration as is.
Exactly. Looking through old post on eroids, I think.the concentration is the concentration but I am not positive on that as I always understood it as light span explained before burr brought this to light.
 
In reading the report, the title of that page is referring to test e and so are the bullet points so I tend to agree with Burr

But I know dick about nothing lol
 
Back
Top