These 2 post makes a lot of sense to me. Here a guy who took pharmaceutical testosterone. Got bloodwork done. Numbers came back. Posted numbers. No members here has replied with "your gear is underdosed" statement.
If I remember right the scoc calls for ugl to have an 80% concentration level of gear. Did this pharmaceutical gear test levels show 80%?
I don't know much about androgen receptors, so I won't comment there.
It's early in the am here....sorry if i make no sense
If I remember right the scoc calls for ugl to have an 80% concentration level of gear. Did this pharmaceutical gear test levels show 80%?
I don't know much about androgen receptors, so I won't comment there.
It's early in the am here....sorry if i make no sense
yeah i really don't think those numbers were bad either. like i said a couple pages back, i ran prescription watson cyp a few different times at 500 mg/wk and t levels always came back at 3500 and i feel confident saying i wasn't getting underdosed cyp each of those time from the pharmacy. i also commented on how if someone takes say 600 mg/wk of cyp or enth, because of the ester ratio you'd really only be getting about 420 mgs of actual test so i'm wondering why were not using these actual test numbers in these equations to determine if something is properly dosed. just hoping we can all get on the same page at some point when it comes to this so we don't have people saying something is underdosed everytime someone's t levels aren't 8-10x the total weekly dosage when that may not be the case at all.
in reference to the debate about where t levels should be based on how much you take per week, I've taken watson brand cyp on a few different occasions that i had prescribed and each time i took 500 mgs/wk and my t levels always came back at 3500 which would be consistent with a 7x rule. just wanted to put that out there for what it's worth. another thing i was wondering is that if i'm taking say 500 mgs of cyp/week, if you take into account that with the percentage of the ester in cypionate, i'm really only getting about 70% of actual test which would be 350 mgs, and if you go by that number then 3500 would actually fall within the 10x rule. just wondering if we should actually be multiplying the amount of actual test minus the ester. maybe i'm wrong but it was just a thought. maybe someone else could chime in on if any of that might make sense.