There is definitly one source that has totally 100% real here.I
Why unlikely? Pretty sure I could get my hands on some serostim
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There is definitly one source that has totally 100% real here.I
Why unlikely? Pretty sure I could get my hands on some serostim
So when you did the test originally, you used a certified standard? What was the purity of it?This and the fact that... when obtained through black market you can never be really 100% sure it's genuine pharma. I've seen fakes that were literally perfect...
Yeah, but I have not encountered 192aa GH in my life as far as I can tell, so I feel it's quite pointless to list that on the reports.
192aa GH is urban myth at this point.
So when you did the test originally, you used a certified standard? What was the purity of it?
I am not really up to date with the market, so it's possible - I'm just naturally quite vary.There is definitly one source that has totally 100% real here.
Hydrophobicity mostly, actually.would the method of differentiating between the two be by molecular weight?
Because pharmaceuticals list 100 mg of the active substance.why is it that pharma grade viagra at 100 mg gets me more effects than 100 mg of raw powder from a source even though it has a 99% purity score?
nope, I actually talked about this many timescould it be that jano or other labs are missing something when analizing?
nope, not at alllike being able to detect the shape of the molecule somewhat but not accurate enough?
No actually, with testosterone (and other steroids) the inactive part is not a salt but ester, which is part of the molecules, so it's counted the same as UGLs would.The same seems to happen with some test esters.
thanks for the explanation broBecause pharmaceuticals list 100 mg of the active substance.
100 mg of raw powder is 80 mg sildenafil and 20 mg citrate salt eg.
100 mg pharma viagra is 120 mg of raw powder of sildenafil citrate.
Numbers obviously simplified.
nope, I actually talked about this many times
nope, not at all
No actually, with testosterone (and other steroids) the inactive part is not a salt but ester, which is part of the molecules, so it's counted the same as UGLs would.
so basically it is more probably the product not being on point, in a few days your analysis will came and I will know, thanks again brobecause blood test measures only the active part of the molecule - the testosterone, after the ester part is already cleaved off
also, they have slightly different rate of ... availability if that's the right word
however, I doubt the difference between test e and c would be possible to tell for sure on blood test results....
after that it's one of the million variables with blood testing.
or problem with product.
which is bro?There is definitly one source that has totally 100% real here.
nois is possible for a hormone to be degraded like losing some bonding or some hidrogen and been tested as pure 98+?
so if I cook some raw past certain threshold and they degrade somewhat, in the analitics it won't count as the original hormone right?
correctso if I cook some raw past certain threshold and they degrade somewhat, in the analitics it won't count as the original hormone right?